[jasonconnnors]

I have this question, if a consumer had a default judgement against them but was unaware of such debt until they see their bank account or any other finances seized or taken away. Let's say this occurs three years after the Default judgement. The consumer was working "off the books" so the the creditor or JDB couldn't track any money for the consumer.

If the JDB on an order to show cause, decided they won't take no more money in the future and signed a stip to these terms.

since it is three years, the default judgement occurred do you think or know if the 1 year SOL for the consumer started three years ago when there was a default judgement or did it start at the day in court where the stip was signed?

If the the consumer realizes so much violations of the FDCPA after reviewing the paper work, can he bring a suit against the JDB.

Or what can be done, if the consumer wants to get his or her money back, what do you think is a good angle at approaching this.

Basically i am trying to find out when is it too late for a consumer to act, is it three years after not knowing about the default or is after the last day in court and signing the settlement Stip.

[Enigma]

The one year SOL for FDCPA actions started when the violation occurred, so yes it's too late.

In generally, three years after the judgment has been entered is too late to do anything about it.